Tuesday, October 9, 2007

A little opposition

Earlier in my blog, I had spoken about the globilization of the world and of the English language. I had come with the view point that since the world was quickly "uniting" that it would be wrong for others not to learn the language of science and business and academia, that being English. But, there has being another point, which an article dutifully pointed out, which I knew but still do not quite believe or perhaps understand. In the article it was stated that since the world was quickly becoming a place where everyone and everything where becoming interconnected, that it would only be right and healthy to indeed start learning other languages. The languages he put forth were European languages, such as French, Spanish, German and Italian. In that opinion, children in school should be forced to take a language all the way throughout high school. And in taking the language the text of the language should be in the text of the language they are studying, and not in English. And the reason for this idea, was put forth that as people who speak English, we seem to expect everyone else to learn our language, but not so much us to learn their languages. The article stated that without learning languages, as English speakers continued to keep narrow minds and never really understand those around us. Well, I agree with this statement, but I do not think because one only speaks English that one is narrow minded in the foreign events. But, it certainly was a different perspective to mine, and I wanted you, my readers, to see another view point.

1 comment:

Steve said...

Is there any way you could link the article you are talking about and flesh out the arguments the author makes a little more clearly? Is there a reason they stick to european languages and do not include asian or middle-eastern languages? it seems to me that American culture is already fairly in tune with the industrialized western european countries and that we would actually benefit more from moving beyond the western linguistic world. What are your thoughts about that? Can you find any evidence or arguments that support either side of this issue?